My friend of many years says pansexuality is fake because: Bisexuality already covered Non-cis first (and she says this apparently according to the BM) Therefore pansexuality is fake because it formed because no one 'researched' bisexuality (which she says the thing i should research is, again, the BM)
I said that it was more likely created due to the fact that although bisexuality was MEANT to be as inclusive as Pan, no one knew because no one was aware of bisexuality being anything other than bi (2) sexes, long before widespread visibility of non-cis persons
What do you guys think? The definitions from marriam-webster DO essentially say pan and bi are the same, but does that mean pansexuality is fake? I don't believe that, but i need second opinions. What makes it not fake?
Submitted August 22, 2020 at 01:05AM by shawn_overlord https://ift.tt/2EfNFpD
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