I’m working on a bit of an essay like thing to try to help clear up some of the confusion (and sadly hostility)surrounding the difference between bi and pan and I have a question.
Do you think it’s accurate to say (assuming bi is defined as attraction to 2+ genders and pan is defined as attraction regardless of gender) that all pan people are also bi but not all bi people are pan?
It seems to me like a logical statement based on the definitions because pan people are attracted to all genders which is included in 2 or more genders. I generally make an analogy to the difference between a square and a rectangle, how all squares are rectangles but not all rectangles are squares and the term square is completely necessary regardless of having an overlap with rectangles.
However, I’m genuinely interested to hear what pansexuals think about that statement because I don’t want to misrepresent your experience. I’m bisexual panromantic btw (because I’m more attracted to guys a lot of the time). I’m hoping it’s clear that this is a friendly question and l don’t want to offend anyone.
Thanks! <3
Submitted August 19, 2020 at 05:46PM by Johnny-Mancer https://ift.tt/2Q97YaC
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